Page 9 of 11

SU1.1-3 | Metabolic Response and Surgical Homeostasis — Graded Quiz

Graded 6 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

Click any question card to reveal the correct answer.

Q1 SU1.1 1 pt

Five days after a severe burn, a patient who is being adequately resuscitated is now warm and vasodilated with a high cardiac output, a raised resting energy expenditure, and laboratory evidence of net muscle protein breakdown with a negative nitrogen balance. Which phase of the metabolic response to injury does this picture represent?

A Ebb phase
B Flow phase, catabolic component
C Flow phase, anabolic component
D Pre-injury baseline homeostasis

Correct. Hypermetabolism, raised energy expenditure, net protein catabolism and negative nitrogen balance in a warm, well-perfused, high-output patient define the catabolic component of the flow phase. The anabolic component, with restoration of stores and positive nitrogen balance, comes later.

Flow phase: an early catabolic component (hypermetabolism, protein breakdown, negative nitrogen balance) precedes a later anabolic component (restoration of stores).

Hypermetabolism with net protein breakdown and negative nitrogen balance is the catabolic flow phase. The ebb phase is hypometabolic and cool; the anabolic flow phase restores stores with positive nitrogen balance.

Click to reveal answer

Q2 SU1.1 1 pt

Which single statement BEST captures why understanding the metabolic response to injury matters at the bedside in the early phase of major trauma?

A A normal blood pressure reliably indicates the patient is not in shock
B Catecholamine-driven vasoconstriction and tachycardia can keep the blood pressure normal while tissue perfusion is already failing, so trends matter more than a single normal reading
C The metabolic response abolishes the need for fluid resuscitation
D The neuroendocrine response lowers blood glucose, so hypoglycaemia is the main early danger

Correct. In early compensated shock, intense catecholamine-driven vasoconstriction and tachycardia defend the blood pressure even as perfusion fails. A single 'normal' BP is therefore falsely reassuring; the trajectory (rising heart rate, falling urine output, rising lactate) is what reveals the failing circulation.

Catecholamine-driven compensation can maintain a normal blood pressure in early shock; read the trajectory (heart rate, urine output, lactate), not a single snapshot.

The key bedside lesson is that the neuroendocrine response can hold the blood pressure normal in early (compensated) shock while perfusion is already failing — so a single normal BP is not reassurance. The response causes hyperglycaemia, not hypoglycaemia, and does not remove the need for resuscitation.

Click to reveal answer

Q3 SU1.2 1 pt

Which set of perioperative measures is MOST likely to ATTENUATE the magnitude of the metabolic response to a major elective operation?

A Prolonged preoperative fasting, allowing the patient to become cold intraoperatively, and withholding analgesia postoperatively
B Effective analgesia, maintenance of normothermia, avoidance of hypovolaemia, and early control of any source of sepsis
C Routine high-dose corticosteroids for every patient
D Deliberate permissive hypothermia to lower metabolic rate

Correct. The afferent triggers of the response include pain, cold, hypovolaemia and sepsis. Blunting them — good analgesia, active warming, avoiding hypovolaemia and controlling infection — reduces the size and duration of the catabolic response. These are core ERAS principles.

Attenuate the metabolic response by minimising its afferent triggers — pain, cold, hypovolaemia and sepsis — the foundation of ERAS.

Attenuate the response by removing its triggers: treat pain, keep the patient warm, avoid hypovolaemia and control sepsis early. Cold, prolonged fasting and untreated pain amplify it; routine steroids and deliberate hypothermia are not used for this.

Click to reveal answer

Q4 SU1.3 1 pt

During the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist, the entire team pauses immediately before the skin incision to verbally confirm the correct patient, the correct procedure and the correct site. Which formal step of the checklist is this?

A Sign-In, performed before induction of anaesthesia
B Time-Out, performed before skin incision
C Sign-Out, performed before the patient leaves theatre
D Post-anaesthesia handover, performed in recovery

Correct. The Time-Out is the team pause immediately before skin incision, confirming patient, procedure and site (and other safety items). Sign-In occurs before induction; Sign-Out occurs before the patient leaves theatre.

WHO Surgical Safety Checklist has three pauses: Sign-In (before induction), Time-Out (before incision), Sign-Out (before leaving theatre).

The pre-incision team pause confirming patient/procedure/site is the Time-Out. Sign-In is before induction of anaesthesia; Sign-Out is before the patient leaves theatre.

Click to reveal answer

Q5 SU1.3 1 pt

An Enhanced Recovery After Surgery (ERAS) pathway aims to reduce the surgical stress response and speed recovery. Which intervention is consistent with ERAS principles?

A Routine prolonged bowel preparation and overnight fasting from midnight for all patients
B Carbohydrate loading with clear fluids up to 2 hours preoperatively, multimodal opioid-sparing analgesia, early mobilisation and early enteral feeding
C Prolonged bed rest and delayed removal of drains and catheters to ensure healing
D Liberal intravenous fluid loading well beyond physiological need in every patient

Correct. ERAS bundles minimise the stress response and accelerate recovery: avoid prolonged fasting (clear-fluid carbohydrate loading to 2 h), use multimodal opioid-sparing analgesia, maintain normothermia and euvolaemia, and mobilise and feed early. Prolonged fasting, bed rest and fluid excess all work against recovery.

ERAS attenuates the surgical stress response: no prolonged fasting (carbohydrate loading to 2 h), multimodal opioid-sparing analgesia, normovolaemia, early mobilisation and feeding.

ERAS avoids prolonged fasting and bed rest. Its hallmarks are carbohydrate loading to 2 h, multimodal opioid-sparing analgesia, goal-directed (not excessive) fluids, early mobilisation and early feeding.

Click to reveal answer

Q6 SU1.1 1 pt

Which statement BEST describes the role of pro-inflammatory cytokines (such as IL-1, IL-6 and TNF-alpha) in the metabolic response to major injury?

A They are released only weeks after injury and have no role in the acute phase
B They are released early from the site of tissue damage and drive the acute-phase response, fever and aspects of catabolism, acting alongside the neuroendocrine arm
C They directly cause water retention by acting on the renal collecting ducts in place of ADH
D They suppress the metabolic rate and produce the cool, hypometabolic ebb phase

Correct. The inflammatory (cytokine) arm — IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha and others released from injured tissue and immune cells — drives the acute-phase protein response, fever and components of catabolism, working in concert with the neuroendocrine arm to produce the integrated response to injury.

The injury response has two interacting arms: a neuroendocrine arm (cortisol, catecholamines, glucagon, ADH, aldosterone) and an inflammatory cytokine arm (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha) driving the acute-phase response.

Cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha) are released early from damaged tissue and immune cells and drive the acute-phase response, fever and catabolism alongside the neuroendocrine hormones. They do not replace ADH, and they amplify rather than suppress metabolism.

Click to reveal answer