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SU19.1-2,SU20.1-2,SU21.1-2 | Face, Mouth, Oropharynx and Salivary Glands — Graded Quiz

Graded 8 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 SU19.1 1 pt

A baby is born with a cleft involving the lip, the alveolus and the hard and soft palate on one side, extending from the lip right through to the uvula. Using the incisive foramen as the organising landmark, how is this cleft best classified?

A Isolated cleft of the primary palate only
B Isolated cleft of the secondary palate only
C A complete unilateral cleft involving both primary and secondary palate
D A submucous cleft palate
E A bilateral cleft lip with intact palate

Correct. Involvement of lip and alveolus (primary palate, anterior to the incisive foramen) plus hard and soft palate (secondary palate, posterior to it) on one side is a complete unilateral cleft of both primary and secondary palate.

Classification hinges on the incisive foramen: primary palate anterior, secondary palate posterior; clefts may involve either or both, unilaterally or bilaterally.

The incisive foramen separates primary (lip, alveolus) from secondary palate (hard + soft palate). A defect crossing both, on one side, is a complete unilateral cleft of both.

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Q2 SU19.2 1 pt

Which principle should guide the timing and conduct of cleft reconstruction in a child who is otherwise well?

A Operate as a single combined lip-and-palate procedure on day one of life
B Operate when the child is fit and in time to allow normal function — lip early for appearance/feeding, palate before speech
C Defer all surgery until adolescence to allow facial growth to complete first
D Repair the palate first in the neonatal period and the lip in adulthood
E Avoid any multidisciplinary input and rely on a single surgeon throughout

Correct. The two overriding principles are: operate when the child is fit, and operate in time to allow normal function, with a staged multidisciplinary timetable.

Cleft care is staged and multidisciplinary; timing follows function, not convenience.

Reconstruction is staged on a biological timetable: operate when fit and in time for function (lip early, palate before speech), within a multidisciplinary team.

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Q3 SU20.1 1 pt

Regarding the aetiopathogenesis of oral and oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma, which combination of factors is correctly described?

A Smoking and alcohol act independently with no interaction; HPV is irrelevant
B Smoking and alcohol act synergistically, and HPV-16 is particularly associated with oropharyngeal cancer
C Areca nut is protective while only HPV causes oral cancer
D Oral cancer is predominantly adenocarcinoma driven by sun exposure
E Tobacco has no role; diet is the sole determinant

Correct. Tobacco and alcohol act synergistically, smokeless tobacco and areca nut are major drivers in India, and HPV-16 is especially linked to oropharyngeal SCC.

Tobacco + alcohol synergy, smokeless tobacco/areca nut, and HPV-16 (oropharynx) are the key carcinogenic drivers.

Smoking and alcohol are synergistic; smokeless tobacco/areca nut dominate in India; HPV-16 is strongly linked to oropharyngeal (tonsil/base-of-tongue) SCC.

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Q4 SU20.2 1 pt

A biopsy-proven oral squamous cell carcinoma is being staged before a tumour-board decision. Which statement about the principles of treatment is correct?

A Treatment is identical for every stage and always begins with chemotherapy
B Treatment is stage-directed and multidisciplinary, using surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy singly or in combination
C Radiotherapy is contraindicated in all head and neck cancers
D Neck nodes are never addressed in the surgical plan
E Surgery has no role once a tissue diagnosis is obtained

Correct. Management is stage-directed and decided by a tumour board, built on surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy used alone or in combination, with appropriate attention to the neck.

Stage-directed, multidisciplinary, tumour-board-led care using surgery/RT/chemo is the core principle.

Head and neck cancer treatment is stage-directed and multidisciplinary; the three modalities (surgery, RT, chemo) are combined according to stage.

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Q5 SU21.1 1 pt

After leaving the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve enters the parotid gland and divides within it. Why is this anatomical relationship the single most important fact in parotid surgery?

A Because the nerve supplies sensation to the parotid capsule
B Because the nerve divides the gland into superficial and deep lobes and is at risk during any parotidectomy, so its identification and preservation govern the operation
C Because the nerve carries the parasympathetic secretomotor supply to the parotid
D Because injury to it causes loss of taste from the whole tongue
E Because the nerve must always be sacrificed for adequate tumour clearance

Correct. The facial nerve runs through the parotid, dividing it into superficial and deep lobes; identifying and preserving it is the governing principle of parotid surgery.

Facial nerve preservation is the central principle of parotid surgery; it divides the gland into superficial and deep lobes.

The facial nerve passes through the parotid (superficial vs deep lobe) and is the structure most at risk; its preservation governs parotid surgery. Secretomotor supply is via the auriculotemporal nerve (glossopharyngeal pathway).

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Q6 SU21.2 1 pt

A solid parotid mass is suspected of being a tumour. Which investigation sequence best reflects the principle of obtaining a tissue diagnosis before definitive parotid surgery?

A Proceed straight to total parotidectomy with no prior imaging or sampling
B Incisional biopsy through the cheek skin as the first step
C Clinical assessment, imaging (e.g. ultrasound/MRI) to define extent, and fine-needle aspiration cytology for tissue diagnosis
D Sialography alone, which is sufficient to plan cancer surgery
E Radioiodine uptake scan of the gland

Correct. Imaging defines extent and FNAC provides a pre-operative tissue diagnosis; open incisional biopsy of a parotid mass is avoided because of tumour seeding and facial nerve risk.

Tissue diagnosis before surgery is by FNAC, not open incisional biopsy, for parotid masses; imaging defines extent.

For a parotid tumour, clinical assessment + imaging (US/MRI) + FNAC are standard; open incisional biopsy risks seeding and nerve injury and is avoided.

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Q7 SU21.1 1 pt

A 60-year-old male smoker has a soft, sometimes bilateral, cystic swelling in the tail of the parotid. FNAC shows oncocytic epithelium with lymphoid stroma. Which benign tumour does this most likely represent?

A Pleomorphic adenoma
B Warthin's tumour (adenolymphoma / papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum)
C Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D Adenoid cystic carcinoma
E Acinic cell carcinoma

Correct. Warthin's tumour is a benign parotid tumour, classically in older male smokers, often bilateral, with oncocytic epithelium and lymphoid stroma.

Warthin's tumour: benign, older male smokers, often bilateral; pleomorphic adenoma is the commonest benign salivary tumour overall.

Oncocytic epithelium with lymphoid stroma in an older male smoker, often bilateral and cystic, is the classic Warthin's tumour. Pleomorphic adenoma is the commonest benign tumour but has different histology.

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Q8 SU19.1 1 pt

Which statement about the epidemiology and aetiology of cleft lip and palate is correct?

A It is a rare anomaly occurring in about 1 in 100,000 births and is always purely genetic
B It is the commonest congenital facial anomaly (~1 in 700–1000 births) with a multifactorial aetiology
C It results solely from a single autosomal dominant gene with full penetrance
D It only occurs as part of a recognised syndrome and never in isolation
E It is caused exclusively by intrauterine mechanical compression

Correct. Cleft lip and palate is the commonest congenital facial anomaly (~1 in 700–1000) with a multifactorial (genetic and environmental) aetiology, occurring both in isolation and as part of syndromes.

Commonest congenital facial anomaly; multifactorial aetiology; arises from failure of embryological fusion.

It is the commonest congenital facial anomaly (~1 in 700–1000) and is multifactorial; most cases are non-syndromic.

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