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SU28.10-12 | Hepatobiliary and Splenic Surgery — Graded Quiz

Graded 8 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

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Q1 SU28.12 1 pt

A 70-year-old man presents with progressive painless jaundice, weight loss and a palpable, non-tender gallbladder. By Courvoisier's law, what does the palpable non-tender gallbladder in a jaundiced patient most strongly suggest?

A The obstruction is due to gallstones in a chronically fibrosed gallbladder
B The cause is unlikely to be stones and points to a malignant distal biliary/pancreatic obstruction
C There is an amoebic abscess of the liver
D The patient has uncomplicated biliary colic
E There is acute cholecystitis with empyema

Courvoisier's law: in a jaundiced patient a palpable, non-tender gallbladder is unlikely to be due to stones (which scar and shrink the gallbladder) and suggests a malignant cause such as a periampullary or pancreatic-head tumour.

Courvoisier's law: painless jaundice + palpable non-tender gallbladder ⇒ think malignancy, not stones. Investigate with imaging (US, CT) and MRCP/ERCP.

Courvoisier's law points away from stones and towards malignant distal obstruction when the gallbladder is palpable and non-tender.

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Q2 SU28.12 1 pt

A 40-year-old obese woman has recurrent right upper quadrant pain after fatty meals. During examination you ask her to breathe in while you palpate under the right costal margin; she catches her breath in pain. What sign is this and what does it indicate?

A Murphy's sign, indicating acute cholecystitis
B Kehr's sign, indicating splenic rupture
C Rovsing's sign, indicating appendicitis
D Cullen's sign, indicating pancreatitis
E Boas's sign, indicating perforated ulcer

Arrest of inspiration on palpation of the inflamed gallbladder fossa is Murphy's sign, classically positive in acute cholecystitis.

Murphy's sign = inspiratory arrest on RUQ palpation = acute cholecystitis; gold-standard treatment is laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

Inspiratory arrest on RUQ palpation is Murphy's sign — the bedside marker of acute cholecystitis.

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Q3 SU28.12 1 pt

During a difficult laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon dissects Calot's triangle to obtain the 'critical view of safety' before clipping any structure. What is the primary purpose of achieving this view?

A To confirm the diagnosis of malignancy
B To prevent common bile duct injury by positively identifying the cystic duct and cystic artery
C To assess the AAST grade of injury
D To locate daughter cysts before resection
E To measure portal venous flow

The critical view of safety ensures only the cystic duct and cystic artery enter the gallbladder, preventing inadvertent division of the common bile duct — the most feared complication of cholecystectomy.

Calot's triangle (cystic duct, common hepatic duct, liver edge) contains the cystic artery; the critical view of safety prevents CBD injury.

The critical view of safety is about avoiding bile-duct injury by correctly identifying the cystic duct and artery in Calot's triangle.

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Q4 SU28.12 1 pt

A patient with obstructive jaundice and a suspected common bile duct stone needs imaging of the biliary tree before any intervention. Which investigation provides detailed, non-invasive imaging of the ducts without the procedural risks of ERCP?

A Plain abdominal radiograph
B Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
C Barium meal
D Diagnostic laparoscopy
E Technetium bone scan

MRCP is the non-invasive gold standard for imaging the biliary tree; ERCP is reserved for therapeutic intervention (stone extraction, stenting) because it carries risks such as pancreatitis.

MRCP = non-invasive diagnostic biliary imaging; ERCP = therapeutic (stone extraction, stenting) with risks (pancreatitis, bleeding).

MRCP is the non-invasive imaging test; ERCP is kept for therapy because of its procedural risks.

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Q5 SU28.10 1 pt

A surgeon planning a major hepatic resection refers to Couinaud's classification. What is the surgical significance of this segmental anatomy of the liver?

A It grades the severity of splenic trauma
B It divides the liver into functionally independent segments, each with its own vascular inflow and biliary drainage, allowing segment-by-segment resection
C It describes the layers of the gallbladder wall
D It defines the boundaries of Calot's triangle
E It classifies types of hydatid cyst

Couinaud divides the liver into eight functionally independent segments, each with its own portal pedicle and venous drainage, which is what makes anatomical, segment-sparing resection possible.

Couinaud's eight segments + the dual (portal ~75% + arterial ~25%) blood supply explain why the liver can be resected segment by segment.

Couinaud's classification defines eight independent liver segments — the basis for anatomical resection.

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Q6 SU28.10 1 pt

A previously well young man with a pyogenic liver abscess is found to have the abscess seeded via the portal vein. Which is the most plausible primary source for portal-venous seeding of a pyogenic liver abscess?

A A skin abscess on the forearm
B An intra-abdominal source of gut sepsis such as appendicitis or diverticulitis
C A urinary tract infection
D Bacterial endocarditis of the mitral valve
E A dental abscess

The portal vein drains the gut, so intra-abdominal sepsis (e.g. appendicitis, diverticulitis) is the classic portal source seeding a pyogenic liver abscess; treatment is antibiotics plus drainage and control of the source.

Pyogenic liver abscess often follows portal seeding from gut sepsis (appendicitis/diverticulitis), or via the biliary tree; treat with antibiotics + drainage + source control.

Portal-vein seeding implies a gut source — appendicitis or diverticulitis — not a systemic or skin source.

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Q7 SU28.11 1 pt

A haemodynamically stable adult with a CT-confirmed low-grade splenic laceration and no other indication for laparotomy is admitted. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A Immediate splenectomy regardless of stability
B Non-operative management with close monitoring (± angioembolisation), aiming to preserve the spleen
C Discharge home with oral antibiotics
D Elective splenectomy on the next available list
E Therapeutic anticoagulation

A haemodynamically stable patient — even with a higher-grade injury — can be managed non-operatively with close observation and selective angioembolisation, preserving the spleen and avoiding OPSI risk.

Spleen-preserving, non-operative management (± angioembolisation) is the goal in the stable patient; it avoids the lifelong OPSI risk of splenectomy.

Stable patients are managed non-operatively to preserve the spleen; splenectomy is reserved for haemodynamic instability or failed non-operative management.

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Q8 SU28.10 1 pt

A patient with a left-lobe amoebic liver abscess fails to defervesce after several days of metronidazole, and imaging shows a large abscess threatening to rupture into the pericardium. What is the most appropriate next step?

A Continue metronidazole alone and observe indefinitely
B Therapeutic aspiration/drainage of the abscess in addition to amoebicidal therapy
C Start albendazole and arrange PAIR
D Proceed directly to hepatic lobectomy
E Switch to broad-spectrum antifungal therapy

Although amoebic abscess is primarily medical, aspiration/drainage is indicated for large lesions, left-lobe abscesses threatening rupture, or failure to respond to metronidazole. Albendazole/PAIR is for hydatid disease, not amoebic abscess.

Drain an amoebic abscess if it is large, left-lobe with impending rupture, or fails to respond to metronidazole; albendazole + PAIR is for hydatid, not amoebic, disease.

Indications to drain an amoebic abscess include large size, left-lobe/impending rupture, and non-response — drainage is added to amoebicidal drugs, not albendazole.

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